36/male with mpb/thinning in my hairline. I was prescribed 1mg finasteride and have taken it for 4 months. I've seen MUCH MORE thinning in this time frame, and, due to financial reasons, I have been using generic Actavis Finasteride from Costco instead of Propecia. I've read reports that Propecia has a better response and works better than generics without shedding--is this true? Does Actavis not work as well as Propecia? I know in theory it shouldn't but am I not responding to the generic?
Answers (1)
From board-certified doctors and trusted medical professionals
Your scalp embryonically comes from 2 different sources. The scalp on top is from a different source than scalp from the sides of your head and the back region. Hence genetically they are different in response to DHT and their abilities to produce alpha 1 reducatase. DHT does not act ne...
İt is very complicated issue and no one knows answer . Some of my patients (male of female) has AGA with no family history as they know. (But actually they may not remember or know history/type of their whole family hair loss). Secondly , it is multifactoral issue that one may have the re...
The initial studies of Rogaine were done on men's crowns and hence the FDA approved it's use for this area but we know that it works where ever you put it. If you use it on your arm, your arm would grow darker, longer hairs. If you are young and have hairloss, you can get regrowth in the front...